2. Which of the following chambers of the heart pumps oxygenated blood towards the aorta?
a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
3. What is the temperature and pressure kept during autoclave?
a. 1200C (2500 f, at 106 kpa[151 bs/in 2] for 30 minutes
b. 1100C at 106 kpa for 30 minutes
c. 1000C at 106 kpa for 30 minutes
d. 900C at 106 kpa for 30 minutes
4. The process of blood cell formation is called:
a. Thrombocytosis
b. Leucocytosis
c. Erythropoiesis
d. Hemolysis
5. The normal intake of water per day is:
a. 1000ml
b. 2000ml
c. 150ml
d. 2500ml
6. Which type of drug is mebendazole?
a. antifungal
b. antihelmintic
c. antibacterial
d. antiviral
7. The safer route for injection is:
a. intravenous
b. intraperitoneal
c. intrapleural
d. intracardinal
8. What is the pressure of vitreous humour in the eyes?
a. 5 – 10mm of Hg b. 15 – 20 mm of Hg
c. 10 – 15 mm of Hg d. 20 – 25 mm of Hg
9. The most important electrolyte of intracellur fluid is:
a. sodium
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. chloride
10. The beta cell of Islets of langerhans secrets …….. hormone
a. glucagon
b. glycogen
c. insulin
d. amylase
11. A patient is scheduled for a urinary catheterization, in which position should the nurse place the patient:
a. dorsal recumbent position
b. trendelenburg position
c. supine position
d. prone position
12. Tachycardia means pulse rate
a. below 60
b. above 100
c. below 100
d. above 60
13. A patient is scheduled for NG feeding. In which position should the nurse place the patient:
a. Low fowlers position
b. Supine position
c. Trendelenburg
d. Side-lying position
14. The faster route to give medicine is:
a. IV (intravenous)
b. ID (intradermal)
c. IM (intramuscular)
d. SC (subcutaneous)
15. Nosocomial infection is an infection acquired by:
a. infected person
b. community
c. hospital
d. none of the above
16. Nepal Nursing Council was established in:
a. 1953 BS
b. 2053 BS
c. 1954 BS
d. 2054 BS
17. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride. With respect to human blood cells, to which category of fluid does thos solution belongs to?
a. isotonic
b. hypotonic
c. isometric
d. hypertonic
18. A patient is to have gastric lavage. In which position should the nurse place the client when the lavage tube is being inserted?
a. supine position
b. mid-fowlers position
c. high fowlers position
d. trendelenberg position
19. The correct way to collect sterile urine sample is:
a. from clean bedpan or urinal
b. The first small amount of urine voided
c. Urine voided at midstream
d. all of the above
20. Pancreatitis could be caused by:
a. Mumps
b. TB
c. AGE
d. Meningitis
21. How to facilitate respiration in patients with dyspnoea?
a. remove the pillow from under the head
b. elevate the head of the body
c. elevate the foot of the body
d. take the blood pressure
22. While administering a blood transfusion, when would the nurse assess the patient for a blood transfusion reaction?
a. 15 minutes after the infusion is started
b. after the blood is all infused
c. every hour
d. every 15 minutes
23. When assessing a patient at risk for pressure ulcer formation, which site would the nurse identify as being most common:
a. occipital area
b. sacrum
c. sternum
d. humerus
24. A patient is receiving 1000 ml of IV fluid per 24 hours. Using an IV set with a drop rate of 15 drops/ ml the nurse should plan to regulate the IV is:
a. 10 drops/min
b. 15 drops/min
c. 20 drops/min
d. 30 drops/min
25. The identification of clients' health needs occurs in the nursing process of:
a. planning
b. evaluation
c. assessment
d. implementation
26. When the elevated temperature fluctuates widely but does not reach normal levels between fluctuations is called:
a. constant
b. remittent
c. intermittent
d. relapsing
27. A client has a temperature of 104 degrees Fahrenheit. This temperature is equal to:
a. 380C
b. 400C
c. 410C
d. 420C
28. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood develops in patient, the nurse's first intervention should be
a. call the physician
b. slow the flow rate of blood
c. stop the blood immediately
d. administer anti-allergic drug
29. The best type of solution to use for the irrigation of urinary catheters is:
a. distilled water
b. normal saline
c. tap water
d. warm water
30. The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is
a. wearing gloves
b. hand washing
c. wearing mask
d. isolating ill patient
31. Which instrument is used to test the client's hearing?
a. stethoscope
b. tuning fork
c. otoscope
d. reflex hammers
32. When is International Nurses Day celebrated?
a. 12th May
b. 12th March
c. 2nd May
d. 31st July
33. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for the transfer to the operating room. The nurse should take which action in the care of this client at this time?
a. ensure that the client has voided
b. administer ball daily medications
c. practice postoperation breathing exercise
d. verify that the client has not eaten the last 24 hours
34. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment the nurse performs which assessment at first:
a. auscultation b. inspection
c. palpation d. percussion
35. While giving a intradermal injection the needle should be held at:
a. 150
b. 450
c. 300
d. 900
36. Appropriate temperature of solution prepared for sitz–bath should be
a. 105 – 1100F
b. 100 – 1050F
c. 110 – 1150F
d. 115 – 1200F
37. The nurse determines that the client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should immediately be taken next:
a. remove IV line
b. run normal saline at a keep vein often rate
c. run a solution of 5% dextrose in water
d. obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client
38. Health policy formation in Nepal since
a. 1991 AD
b. 1998 AD
c. 1995 AD
d. 1999 AD
39. Trachoma is a disease of
a. eyelid
b. pupil
c. conjunctiva
d. orbital bone
40. BCG vaccine is against
a. measles
b. diphtheria
c. tuberculosis
d. whooping cough
41. DOTS stand for:
a. directly observed treatment short course
b. direct observed treatment short course
c. direct observed treatment system
d. directly observed treatment system
42. The vector for malaria is:
a. plasmodium vivax
b. plasmodium malariae
c. plasmodium falciparium
d. female anopheles mosquito
43. HIV/AIDS is caused by:
a. retro virus
b. rhabdo virus
c. rota virus
d. pox virus
44. Which of the following is a waterborne disease?
a. meningitis
b. typhoid
c. hepatitis
d. malaria
45. Kala-azar is caused by ……………… vector.
a. malaria
b. sandfly
c. housefly
d. bee
46. Syphilis is caused by:
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Treponema palladium
d. Streptococcus
47. What type of vaccination is given against measles?
a. line attenuated
b. killed
c. toxoid
d. inactive
48. Which of the following is the principle of primary health care?
a. health education
b. dental health
c. mental health
d. community participation
49. Oral contraceptive act by
a. prevention ovulation
b. making endometrium non-reactive to embryo
c. making inactive to sperm
d. inhibiting sperm penetration to the ovum
50. The age of the child to receive DPT vaccine is:
a. 6, 10, 14 weeks
b. 6, 12, 18 weeks
c. 6, 7, 8 weeks
d. 1, 2, 3 weeks
51. Which of the following comes under STD?
a. HIV/AIDS
b. typhoid
c. diarrhea
d. leprosy
52. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a patient, the nurse should teach the client about the potential of developing?
a. cervicitis
b. fibrocystic disease
c. ovarian cyst
d. breakthrough bleeding
53. Which of the following is not the 6 killer disease?
a. ARI
b. diarrhoea
c. measles
d. meningitis
54. When emergency contraceptives should be taken after unprotected sexual intercourse?
a. within 24 hours
b. within 48 hours
c. within 36 hours
d. within 72 hours
55. What is the best method of solid disposal?
a. compositing
b. incineration
c. dumping
d. burial
56. Which of the following permanent family planning methods requires contraceptives at least for 20 ejaculations after surgery?
a. Vasectomy
b. Laparoscopy
c. Minilap
d. Norplant
57. The comprehensive assessment of the health status of an entire community is called:
a. community diagnosis
b. micro-teaching
c. home visit
d. health education
58. Which type of approach is used in home visits?
a. individual approach
b. group approach
c. mass approach
d. media approach
59. Which of the following contraceptives is excluded in the outreach clinic?
a. Oral pills
b. ORS packet
c. Condom
d. Norplant
60. In triage, which colour code should be given the first priority?
a. red colour
b. green colour
c. yellow colour
d. black colour
61. Which one of the following is the natural family planning method?
a. norplant
b. condom
c. coitus interrupts
d. tubectomy
62. After the ovulation ovum remains alive for
a. 10hrs
b. 16hrs
c. 24 hrs
d. 48 hrs
63. To limit painful attacks which food should the nurse teach a client with gout to avoid?
a. eggs
b. liver
c. cheese
d. salmon
64. The use of loop diuretics may lead to:
a. fluid overload
b. hypernatermia
c. hyperkalemia
d. hypokalemia
65. To facilitate performing the lumber puncture, it is best to place the patient – in:
a. knee-chest position
b. sitting up position
c. side lying with neck flexed
d. left lateral position
66. The nurse understands that a client with dysphasia has difficulty:
a. writing
b. focusing
c. swallowing
d. understanding
67. Which of the following foods is given in osteoporosis?
a. banana
b. cheese
c. vegetable
d. papaya
68. "Ego integrity vs despair" is the core test of:
a. adolescence
b. adulthood
c. young adulthood
d. older adulthood
69. The main health problems of young adults is:
a. accidents
b. dementia
c. cancer
d. cardiovascular problem
70. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus transmitted from the mother?
a. Ig A
b. Ig B
c. Ig D
d. Ig G
71. When I.Q is below …………. the individual is considered as mentally retarded?
a. 70
b. 90
c. 80
d. 100
72. If the patient is getting streptokinase, what is essential for the nurse to monitor?
a. hypo pyrexia
b. hypotension
c. bleeding
d. cataract
73. Which immunoglobulin constitutes the major portion of serum?
a. Ig G
b. Ig A
c. Ig M
d. Ig D
74. Which of the following is not a contagious disease?
a. Trachoma
b. leprosy
c. STI
d. cataract
75. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency of:
a. iron
b. vitamin B12
c. intrinsic factor
d. bile
76. The food advised for a patient with the problem of constipation is:
a. high fibre diet
b. high protein diet
c. fatty diet
d. minerals
77. Chronic health problems are very common in:
a. adolescence
b. adulthood
c. young adulthood
d. older adulthood
78. Which of the following matches the definition? The loss of circulatory fluids into interstitial space?
a. hypovolemia
b. necrosis
c. wschar
d. maceration
79. Otitis media is the inflammation of:
a. middle ear
b. outer ear
c. inner ear
d. none of the above
80. Prolong use of alcohol is excess leads to:
a. cirrhosis of the liver
b. lung disease
c. kidney disease
d. brain oedema
81. Calculate the drip for 2 pints of fluid given in 5 hours.
a. 24 drops/min
b. 86 drops/min
c. 100 drops/min
d. 121 drops/min
82. The richest source of vitamin C is:
a. amla
b. papaya
c. orange
d. apple
83. The complication of portal hypertension is
a. hematoemesis
b. ascitis
c. hematuria
d. hemoptysis
84. The pain of angina radiates to:
a. arm, shoulder and jaw
b. side of nee
c. on the back
d. only on the left arm
85. Pain in the right iliac fossa of the abdomen which radiates to the umbilicus indicates the problem of:
a. gall bladder
b. appendicitis
c. kidney stone
d. pancreatitis
86. Cardiac catheterization is done most commonly through
a. carotid vein
b. inferior venacara
c. superor venacava
d. femoral vein
87. Which opens in the right atrium?
a. carotid vein
b. inferior venacara
c. superor venacava
d. femoral vein
88. If a patient is unable to breathe in a horizontal position is called:
a. dyspnea
b. hyperapnea
c. orthopnea
d. apnea
89. Absorption of iron is enhanced by:
a. calcium
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin E
90. One is said to be neonate from birth to:
a. 4 weeks of age
b. 4 months
c. 4 days of age
d. 4 years of age
91. Except breast milk no other food is required to be given up to:
a. 4 months
b. 7 months
c. 8 months
d. 9 months
92. A body usually triples its birth weight by the end of the:
a. 6 months
b. 1-year
c. 9 months
d. 2 years
93. A child can stand without support at the age of:
a. 6 months
b. 10 months
c. 8 months
d. 9 months
94. Which of the following is the first leading cause of death of under 5 children?
a. ARI
b. measles
c. diarrhoea
d. malnutrition
95. Which of the most suitable site for the infant to open the vein?
a. subclavian vein
b. temporal vein
c. radial vein
d. dorsalis pedis
96. Anterior fontanels usually closes at:
a. 2-3 months
b. 18-24 months
c. 10-12 months
d. 30 – 36 months
97. Child growth & development is most affected by:
a. peers
b. home environment
c. parent-child bond
d. school environment
98. In which of the following diseases the parent should be educated about proper diet planning?
a. down syndrome
b. autism
c. meningitis
d. epilepsy
99. Which of the leading causes of death among adolescents in Nepal?
a. smoking b. accidents
c. substance used d. diseases
100. When observing a toddler and other children in the playroom, the nurse should expect the toddler to engage in:
a. parallel play
b. competitive play
c. solitary play
d. co-operative play
101. A child has started crawling just a couple of days back. His/Her age according the milestone of development is:
a. 6-7 months
b. 9-11 months
c. 8-9 months
d. 12-13 months
102. Measles is mainly the infectious disease of:
a. childhood
b. female adults
c. male adults
d. old age
103. Which of the following is the best weaning food:
a. Cow milk
b. Fruit juice, dal Maad
c. Solid food stuff
d. Horlicks
104. A minimum number of antenatal visits during pregnancy is as per the revised protocol:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 11
105. The commonest cause of neonatal mortality in Nepal is
a. Low birth weight
b. diarrheal disease
c. ARI
d. congenital anomalies
106. Which is risk factor for hyperthermia?
a. premature
b. diareheal disease
c. ARI
d. congenital anomalies
107. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in all conditions EXCEPT:
a. renal failure
b. heart disease
c. obesity
d. anaemia
108. The pituitary hormone that stimulates the secretion of milk from the mammary gland:
a. oxytocin
b. estrogen
c. prolactin
d. progesterone
109. After ovulations the ovum remains viable for:
a. 1 to 6 hours
b. 12 to 18 hours
c. 24 to 36 hours
d. 48 to 72 hours
110. The most common side effects associated with IUD:
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. expulsion of IUD
c. repture of the uterus
d. excessive menstrual flow
111. At what week during pregnancy does the uterus rise out of the pelvis and become an abdominal organ?
a. 8th week of pregnancy
b. 10th week of pregnancy
c. 12th week of pregnancy
d. 18th week of pregnancy
112. The greatest total weight gain at ………….. trimester.
a. first
b. third
c. second
d. implantation period
113. What is the safer position for a woman in labour with a prolapsed cord?
a. prone
b. flower's
c. lithotomy
d. trendelberg
114. The first dose of immunization against tetanus in pregnant clients is given at:
a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 16-24 weeks
d. 24-32 weeks
115. Sudden onset painless, apparently causeless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy is:
a. abruption placenta
b. spontaneous abortion
c. placenta praevia
d. ectopic pregnancy
116. The perception of active fetal movements by pregnant women for the first time is known as:
a. braxtion hicks contraction
b. oriander's sign
c. quickening
d. chadwick's sign
117. Which of the following does not include active management of the third stage of labour?
a. 10 unit oxytocin IM
b. placenta delivery by CCT method
c. uterine massage
d. dry and stimulate the baby
118. The nurse would suspect ectopic pregnancy if the client complained of:
a. an adherent painful ovarian mass
b. lower abdominal cramping for a long period of time
c. leucorrhoea and dysuria a few days after the first missed period
d. sharp lower right left abdominal pain radiated to the shoulder
119. A test commonly used to determine the number motility and activity of sperm is the
a. Rubin fest
b. Friedman test
c. postcoital test
d. Papanicolaou test
120. Management of placenta previa are the following EXCEPT:
a. vaginal examination
b. immediate transfer to hospital
c. complete bed rest
d. accurate assessment of blood loss
121. Late in pregnancy, the fetal head descends into the pelvis and the contour of the abdomen changes. This is referred to as:
a. False descent
b. Lightening
c. Braxton hicks labour
d. Effacement
122. Which is the most common cause that leads to postpartum hemorrhage in mothers?
a. uterine atonicity
b. blood coagulopathy
c. hypertension
d. trauma
123. Physiological jaundice occurs in neonates during:
a. first 24 hours of birth
b. 36 hrs of birth
c. within 1 month of birth
d. within 1 year
124. The contents of lochia alba are:
a. decidual cells, leucocytes, mucus, cholesterin, crystals, fatty and granular epithelial cells and microorganisms
b. Less RBC but more leucocytes would exclude mucus, microorganisms
c. blood, shreds of fetal membrane and decidua, vernix caseosa, lanugo and meconium
d. leucocytes and mucus only
125. The episiotomy is:
a. deliberate incision in the perineum to facilitate childbirth done during severe uterine contraction
b. done in every delivery case
c. done by giving general anaesthesia
d. not needed in any delivery cases
126. The most common symptoms complained of by patients with cystocele and rectocele is:
a. heavy leucorrhoea and purities
b. sporadic bleeding and abdominal pain
c. change in vaginal acidity and leucorrhoea
d. stress incontinence and low abdominal pressure
127. The abnormal opening between the vagina and urinary bladder is:
a. rectocele
b. cystocele
c. fistula
d. opening
128. Getting things done correctly means
a. leadership
b. staffing
c. organization
d. management
129. The process of selecting the right person in the right place at the right time is:
a. leadership
b. staffing
c. co-ordination
d. management
130. In which types of leadership style there is a feeling of we rather than I
a. democratic
b. laissez- faire
c. autocratic
d. communist
131. The process of observing whether sup-ordinates are working correctly in accordance with the policies is:
a. leadership
b. communication
c. supervision
d. evaluation
132. The main advantage of autocratic leadership is:
a. it can increase efficiency
b. it helps to get quick results
c. it is useful for new employees
d. it has one-way communication
133. Management of specialized hospitals depends on
a. doctors' decisions
b. teamwork
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
134. The process of comparing actual performance with standards process & taking corrective decisions is
a. management
b. leadership
c. staffing
d. controlling
135. Which of the following drugs is not used as first-line drugs in the treatment of T.B?
a. rifampicin
b. ethambutol
c. isoniazide
d. kanamycin
136. All of the following antitubercular drugs are bacterial EXCEPT:
a. ethambutol
b. rifampicin
c. isoniazide
d. streptomycin
137. The 1st AIDS case in Nepal was diagnosed in
a. 1981
b. 1985
c. 1988
d. 1991
138. All of the following vaccines must be stored in the freezer compartment EXCEPT:
a. Polio
b. BCG
c. Measles
d. TT
139. The route of administering of measles vaccine is:
a. intradermal
b. subcutaneous
c. intramuscular
d. oral
140. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
141. How many bones are there in the human vertebra?
142. The main vector for transmission of dengue fever is:
a. Culex
b. Aedes
c. Anopheles
d. Housefly
143. One gram of carbohydrates provides
a. 4 kcal
b. 9kcal
c. 7kcal
d. 10 kcal
144. The enzyme trypsin is produced by
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. stomach
d. small intestine
145. Milk sugar is
a. glucose
b. galactose
c. lactose
d. fructose
146. Water soluble vitamins are
a. A, D, E, K
b. B and C
c. A, B, C, D
d. K and C
147. The first manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is
a. night blindness
b. xerosis of conjunctiva
c. bitot's sopt
d. keratomlacia
148. The most common cause of preventable blindness in children in Nepal is
a. vitamin A deficiency
b. eye infection
c. eye injury
d. cataract
149. Which of the vitamins is also known as an anti-sterility vitamin?
a. A
b. C
c. E
d. K
150. Informing people, motivating people and guiding into action are the main objectives of
a. communication
b. preventive-medicine
c. health education
d. primary health care
Shisir Kumar Adhikari
2024-02-19 19:43:04
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